CLIA Microbiology / Serology Competency Assessment
Patrick Barnes MA MT(ASCP)
CLIA Microbiology / Serology will sharpen your skills in identifying suspicious forms in blood, stool, sputum, and urine, gram positive and gram negative organisms, and traits of organisms commonly encountered in laboratory practice. A review module allows you to learn with interactive questions and detailed feedback, and when you're ready, the competency assessment will document your proficiency and award CE credit. CLIA Microbiology / Serology is also ideal for facilities needing to document CLIA competency for their employees.
Continuing Education (CE) Credits
Other CLIA Competency Courses
Other Microbiology Courses
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CLIA Microbiology / Serology Competency Assessment Outline
- CLIA
- MICROBIOLOGY / SEROLOGY
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This suspicious form, shown below at both low (10X) and high dry (40X) power, measures 90 micro meters by 42 micro meters. It was seen in a STOOL sample.
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Recovered from a SPUTUM sample, this suspicious form measures 112 micro meters by 55 micro meters.
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This suspicious form, found in a STOOL sample, measures 15 micro meters.
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This INTESTINAL PARASITE, found in STOOL, measures 170 micro meters by 63 micro meters.
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This suspicious form, seen in a scotch tape prep, measures measures 54 micro meters by 28 micro meters.
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This PARASITE is found in BLOOD.
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This PARASITE resides in human intestine.
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This suspicious form, found in URINE, measures 120 micro meters by 50 micro meters.
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This suspicious form was found in STOOL.
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This suspicious form was recovered in BLOOD.
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I measure 15 micro meters and am found in STOOL.
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I reside in the mouth where I measure approximately 17 micro meters.
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I measure 12 micro meters and am found in STOOL.
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I reside inside RED BLOOD CELLS, where I grow and grow until the cells are eventually destroyed.
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I may be found in STOOL.
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Which of the following statements about RICKETTSIA is false:
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Which one of the following VIRUSes requires a complex LYMPHOBLASTOID cell CULTURE, and is rarely if ever diagnosed by CULTURE:
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Which of the following ORGANISMS is the most common cause of ACUTE CYSTITIS:
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The capsular material used to identify capsular subtypes of PNEUMOCOCCI consists of:
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The most frequent cause of BACTERIAL MENINGITIS in older adults is:
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Which of the following ORGANISMS in most frequently associated with ENDOCARDITIS:
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Which one of the following statements about COXIELLA BURNETII is not true:
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Adult ASCARIS LUMBRICOIDES WORMS live in the:
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Which of the following PARASITES enters its host through ingestion of infected food:
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Match the STREPTOCOCCAL ORGANISM with the appropriate group.
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Which of the following ORGANISMS will give a positive COAGULASE test:
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Which of the following ORGANISMS is an obligate INTRACELLULAR PARASITE:
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VDRL is an example of which of the following types of tests:
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The Quelling test is useful for which of the following :
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Which of the following is used as the indicator in the rapid CARBOHYDRATE utilization tests:
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Which of the following are not considered normal flora of the GASTROINTESTINAL tract:
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Which of the following would be the most appropriate temperature for long term storage of viral CULTURES:
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Which two of the following ORGANISMS are GRAM POSITIVE:
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Which of the following ORGANISMS are GRAM NEGATIVE:
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Which of the following ORGANISMS are GRAM POSITIVE:
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Which of the following ORGANISMS are GRAM POSITIVE:
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Which of the following staining methods would you use to demonstrate the METACHROMATIC GRANULES of CORYNEBACTERIUM DIPHTHERIAE:
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Which of the following media contains the X and V factors necessary for the growth of HAEMOPHILUS INFLUENZAE:
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Which of the following substances pRODuced by Group A STREPTOCOCCI is responsible for pRODucing type specific IMMUNITY:
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Which of the following is a confirmatory test for SYPHILIS:
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Match the DIFFERENTIAL/ selective ENTERIC medium with its characteristic indicator, FERMENTABLE, and BACTERIOSTATIC.
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GRAM POSITIVE ORGANISMS
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Group A BETA-HEMOLYTIC STREPTOCOCCI are best characterized by which of the following:
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The slide COAGULASE test is a rapid method for IDENTIFYING which of the following ORGANISMS.
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Which of the following is a presumptive test for the IDENTIFICATION of LANCEFIELD group A STREPTOCOCCUS:
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Which one of the following ORGANISMS is typically urease negative:
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The disk DIFFUSION method of measuring ANTIMICROBIAL SENSITIVITY is also termed:
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Which of the following yeasts causes thrush:
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The EPSTEIN-BARR VIRUS is associated with which of the following conditions:
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Which one of the following tests should be used to monitor a patient's response to TREATMENT for SYPHILIS:
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The OXIDASE test is used to presumptively identify:
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The INDOLE test may be used to differentiate members of which of the following species:
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Which one of the following tests would be positive in the presence of KLEBSIELLA:
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A positive RPR test and a negative FTA-ABS test is most likely the result of:
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A process by which BACTERIA or other BIOLOGICAL material are preserved through freeze drying under VACUUM is termed:
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Which of the following ORGANISMS is best visualized by use of a DARKFIELD microscope:
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RHODOTORULA is a yeast that may be found in:
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Which of the following STREPTOCOCCUS exhibits a positive BILE SOLUBILITY test:
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The IODINE prep method is used to detect which of the following PROTOZOAN stages:
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With regard to BLOOD CULTURES, which BLOOD to broth RATIO is most conducive to growth:
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On sheep BLOOD AGAR HAEMOPHILUS INFLUENZAE may exhibit satellite formation around all but which of the following ORGANISMS:
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Which of the following media is commonly used when performing the KIRBY-BAUER disk DIFFUSION
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Which one of the following ORGANISMS do not usually stain with an ACID-FAST stain, or one of its variants:
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Match type of media on the right with best description:
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Match type of HEMOLYSIS on the right with best description:
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The recommended temperature/time/pressure for routine steam STERILIZATION of media is:
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Which of the following species are GRAM POSITIVE:
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When a URINE specimen cannot be CULTUREd immediately it may be:
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Which of the following ORGANISMS is not an AEROBIC ORGANISM:
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Which of the following is the most suitable specimen for the isolation of BORDETELLA PERTUSSIS:
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Which two of the following tests are helpful for documenting previous STREPTOCOCCAL throat and skin INFECTIONS:
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MIC is an acronym for:
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Which of the following tests would be used to directly document the presence of a specific ORGANISM in a CLINICAL specimen:
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Which one of the following statement about CAMPYLOBACTOR JEJUNISP. JEJUNI is false:
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Which one of the following is not a system for INCUBATION of ANAEROBIC BACTERIA:
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MACCONKEY AGAR contains all of the following except :
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The TURBIDITY of the BACTERIAL INOCULUM of a standard disc DIFFUSION (KIRBY-BAUER) susceptibility test is:
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Which of the following specimens would not be considered suitable for ANAEROBIC CULTURE:
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Match type of media on the right with media on the left:
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Match the ORGANISMS on the right with CULTURE medium:
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Match the CULTURE media on the right with possible ORGANISM on the left:
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Match the ORGANISM on the right with the most suitable CULTURE media on the left:
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A 20 year-old female was admitted into the HOSPITAL complaining of 10 to 15 BLOODY MUCOUS STOOLS per day, fever, GASTROINTESTINAL disturbances, ABDOMINAL pain, and nausea. The preliminary O & P report went out as "Probable ENTAMOEBA HISTOLYTICA TROPHOZOITES and CYSTS, confirmation pending." This patient is most likely suffering from:
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Which of the following is not necessary for BACTERIA to grow successfully on artificial media:
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Which of the following best describes the benefits of the RPR or VDRL tests:
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Which of the following HEPATITIS ANTIGENS is most directly linked to transmission of HBV:
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KOCH's postulates include all of the following except:
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Which of the following ENTEROBACTERIACEAE pRODuces DIHYDROGEN SULFIDE:
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Which of the following would be considered the definitive host of a PARASITE:
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Which of the following PARASITES is not commonly found in the peripheral BLOOD:
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Which of the following growth factor(s) is necessary for the proper CULTURE of HAEMOPHILUS INFLUENZAE:
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Which of the following would you expect to find in the SERUM of a patient who has recovered from HEPATITIS B INFECTION within 6 months after INFECTION:
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Which of the following is not a structural component of a typical VIRION:
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Which of the following media would you use to isolate FRANCISELLA TULARENSIS:
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Which of the following specimens is the most sensitive for detecting active CMV INFECTION:
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Which of the following media is a selective medium for CAMPYLOBACTER JEJUNI:
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Different species of NEISSERIA can be differentiated from each other by:
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Which one of the following statements is false:
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Which of the following ORGANISMS is most likely to be associated with gas GANGRENE:
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Which one of the following PARASITES must migrate through the circulation before maturing in the portal VENOUS system:
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Which of the following is not true about members of the ENTEROBACTERIACEAE:
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The IODINE prep is most helpful to identify which of the following PARASITIC stages:
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Which of the following microscopic techniques is best suited for direct examination of the INFECTIOUS agent of SYPHILIS:
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XANTHOCHROMIA in CSF is characteristic of:
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Which of the following techniques is used as a confirmatory test for HIV ANTIBODIES:
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Which of the following SEROLOGICAL tests would be used for the DIAGNOSIS of Q-fever:
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Match the ORGANISMS on the left with their appropriate type on the right:
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Match ORGANISM on right to common name on the left.
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Match the type of HEPATITIS with its route of transmission
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Match the HEPATITIS B test with the appropriate DISEASE phase
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Which of the following tests would you employ to examine a CSF for SYPHILIS:
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BACITRACIN susceptibility is useful for which two of the following:
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BACTERIA which require OXYGEN for proper growth are termed:
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Match each VIRUS with its appropriate NUCLEIC acid content:
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Match each VIRUS with its appropriate NUCLEIC acid content:
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Match each VIRUS with its appropriate NUCLEIC acid content:
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Match the VIRUS with its associated DISEASE:
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Match the VIRUS with its DISEASE:
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Match the VIRUS with its DISEASE:
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Which one of the following is not a true statement about CHLAMYDIA:
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Which of the following two media are appropriate for BORDETELLA PERTUSSIS:
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Which of the following two are useful SEROLOGICAL tests to document antecedent STREPTOCOCCAL INFECTIONS:
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India Ink is used to:
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Sheep BLOOD AGAR contains INHIBITORS to which of the following ORGANISMS:
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Which of the following ASSAYS is routinely used for confirmation of HIV INFECTIONS:
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What is the purpose of using ALCOHOL in the GRAM STAIN procedure:
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A decrease in which of the following in an AIDS patient are associated with increased susceptibility to INFECTION:
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The infective stage for all of the INTESTINAL AMEBAE is the:
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Thick GIEMSA-STAINED smears are primarily used to screen for the presence of:
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The adult WORMS of which of the following reside in the intestine or its BLOOD vessels:
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Which of the following has a life cycle that most closely resembles that of PLASMODIUM sp:
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Which of the following best describes the ORGANISMS seen in this illustRATIOn:
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Which of the following best describes the ORGANISMS seen in this illustRATIOn:
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Which one of the following statements about E.COLI O157:H7 is false:
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What is the best term to describe the clear areas seen around the COLONies on this BLOOD AGAR plate:
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The THAYER-MARTIN AGAR plate seen in this illustRATIOn exhibits marked growth. The most likely ORGANISM found here would be:
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The red/pink color of the COLONies (E. COLI) seen on this MACCONKEY AGAR Plate is an indication of:
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The selective medium XLD is seen in this illustRATIOn. What is the significance of the black COLONies observable on this plate:
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Which one of the following ORGANISMS is sensitive to BACITRACIN:
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The most likely ORGANISM to be CULTUREd on the LOWENSTEIN-JENSEN AGAR slant illustrated here would be:
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The McFarland Comparison Card shown in the illustRATIOn is used to:
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The grow seen here on PPLO AGAR is most likely caused by:
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Match the description with the appropriate illustRATIOn of COLONY elevations:
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Match the illustRATIOns with the corresponding description of COLONY edges:
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Match the illustRATIOns with corresponding COCCI classification:
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Match the illustRATIOns with the corresponding classification of BACTERIA:
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Match the illustRATIOns with their correct description:
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Match the illustRATIOns with their correct description:
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Match the diagrams of ENDOSPORES with their corresponding description:
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LABEL the parts of this prototypical BACTERIUM:
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"Clear 'bites' of information, with good explanations. Cross reference of terms found in each screen. Good visuals. the chart on Clinitest results and interpretation was well done."