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Earn CE with MediaLab's online courses. Get immediate access to over 70 hours of P.A.C.E. continuing education (CE), including this course and 40 other courses designed for clinical and medical laboratory professionals. Learn more about individual and laboratory subscriptions to MediaLab's customizable online courses and learning management system.

CLIA General Laboratory Competency Assessment

Patrick Barnes MA MT(ASCP)

CLIA General Laboratory covers many vital laboratory skills, including fire safety, chemical hygiene, specificity and sensitivity, titer, hematocrit, and microscope use. A review module allows you to learn with interactive questions and detailed feedback, and when you're ready, the competency assessment will document your proficiency and award CE credit. CLIA General Laboratory is also ideal for facilities needing to document CLIA competency for their employees.

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CLIA General Laboratory Competency Assessment Outline

  • CLIA
    • General LABORATORY / Misc.
      • Which of the following forms of microscopy is not commonly used in the CLINICAL LABORATORY:
      • What is the first thing you do before you handle or open a CHEMICAL:
      • What does the color RED on the NFPA diamond represent:
      • What does the YELLOW color on the NFPA diamond represent:
      • What would a number 2 on the BLUE section of the NFPA diamond indicate:
      • What is the eight hour occupational EXPOSURE limit for a CHEMICAL called:
      • What is the best type of fire extinguisher to use with CHEMICALS:
      • In what section of the MSDS manual would you find information on which CHEMICAL might affect your HEALTH:
      • In which section of the MSDS manual would you find information about whether a specific CHEMICAL is a CARCINOGEN:
      • What type of protective gear must be worn as a minimum when working with HAZARDOUS CHEMICALS:
      • Precision is a measure of:
      • As defined by a GAUSSIAN distribution curve, what percentage of values would be expected to fall within two STANDARD DEVIATIONS of the mean:
      • Which of the following best defines "SENSITIVITY":
      • Which of the following best defines "SPECIFICITY":
      • The relative CENTRIFUGAL force is a function of :
      • Which type of SPECTROPHOTOMETRIC blank should be used to account for ABSORBANCE differences caused by the specimen being tested:
      • The positive square root of the variance of a set of values is called:
      • If a test is said to have a SENSITIVITY of 95%, it will :
      • Which one of the following does not directly regulate CLINICAL laboratories:
      • When drawing BLOOD for COAGULATION studies, one should always:
      • Which of the following INFECTIOUS agents represent the greatest risk to the LABORATORY worker:
      • A microliter is equal to:
      • Materials such as strong acids and bases are classified as:
      • The process of PIPETTING 1.0 ml of PLASMA or SERUM into a tube containing 1.0 ml of SALINE, mixing the contents and then repeating the same procedure into several additional tubes also containing 1.0 ml of SALINE is referred to as:
      • A LABORATORY fire that is the direct result of the ELECTRICAL malfunction of a LABORATORY instrument or piece of equipment would be classified as:
      • If a LABORATORY 's control range (using a 99.7 confidence interval) for a given ASSAY is 20.0 to 50.0, what would its means and one STANDARD DEVIATION be:
      • What is the primary functional unit of the KIDNEY :
      • Which one of the following statements about HEPATITIS is true?
      • Which of the following tests would be useful in the ASSESSMENT of GLOMERULAR filtRATIOn:
      • Match URINE color with substance that might have been responsible:
      • Which of the following is not a standard method for measuring the SPECIFIC GRAVITY of URINE:
      • The normal range for URINE pH is:
      • Identify the reaction seen in IllustRATIOn
      • Which of the following best defines SPECIFIC GRAVITY:
      • Which one of the following statements about the HEPATITIS B VACCINE is correct?
      • Which of the following cells when found upon microscopic examination of the URINE would be most indicative of KIDNEY DISEASE:
      • Which of the following casts might be found in the URINE of a HEALTHy individual after strenuous exercise:
      • Match the URINE SEDIMENT or CRYSTAL to the correct description.
      • Fire requires what three elements?
      • The direct relationship between the CONCENTRATION of a substance and its ABSORBANCE is referred to as:
      • Which of the following is not appropriate for a routine BLOOD specimen:
      • STANDARD PRECAUTIONS means that:
      • Which one of the following statements about bar CODING is false:
      • Which one of the following statements about the HEPATITIS B VACCINE is correct?
      • A FLUOROMETER operates on which of the following principles:
      • SERUM CALCITONIN is typically elevated in which of the following conditions:
      • Which of the following statements best describes the mean and median as they relate to a normal "GAUSSIAN" distribution curve:
      • SPECTROPHOTOMETRIC ABSORBANCE is related to % transmittance in what way:
      • What section of the MSDS would provide information about whether a CHEMICAL is CARCINOGENIC?
      • Many LABORATORY PROCEDURES are conducted at 37o C. This corresponds to what temperature on the Fahrenheit scale:
      • What is the preferred solution for general DISINFECTION of work surfaces in the CLINICAL LABORATORY:
      • To prepare 500 ml of a 5 % NAOH Solution how many grams of NAOH is required:
      • The CONCENTRATION of SODIUM CHLORIDE in an ISOTONIC solution is :
      • To convert Celsius to Fahrenheit you would use the following formula:
      • If a PIPETTE is LABELED (TC) " to contain " you would do the following:
      • Total magnification of a microscope can be determined by:
      • Periodic verification that a CENTRIFUGE is operating correctly is determined by:
      • The wavelength of the light measured by a SPECTROPHOTOMETER is generally designated in NANOMETERS. A NANOMETER is equal in meters to:
      • 50 ml of a 10.0 mg/dl working standard is required for a particular ASSAY. How much of a 5.0 mg/ml stock solution would be required to prepare the working standard:
      • RHEUMATOID factor reacts with which the following :
      • The PROZONE effect ( when performing a screening TITER) is most likely to result in:
      • Which of the following sources is most likely to result in an INFECTION from the AIDS VIRUS:
      • The ASSAY which is most helpful in IDENTIFYING specific ALLERGENS is:
      • An increase in CEA levels is most closely associated with which of the following organs:
      • Which of the following ANTIBODY types is chiefly seen in the primary IMMUNE response:
      • Which of the following ANTIBODY types is chiefly seen in the secondary IMMUNE response:
      • A hapten is only ANTIGENIC when it is coupled with which of the following:
      • The reaction that occurs when a SOLUBLE ANTIGEN is mixed with its specific ANTIBODY is termed:
      • Which of the following PROCEDURES would you employ to monitor the precision of an ASSAY:
      • Which of the following kappa / lambda RATIOS is found in normal SERUM:
      • A simple check which can be employed to verify that HEMOGLOBIN and HEMATOCRIT values match would be:
      • Which of the following is most responsible for increasing the ERYTHROCYTE SEDIMENTATION rate (ESR):
      • A HEMOCYTOMETER is generally not used for which of the following:
      • Which of the following methods is not used to detect and differentiate WHITE BLOOD CELLS in most HEMATOLOGY ANALYZERS:
      • The relative CENTRIFUGAL force of a CENTRIFUGE may be affected by all except the following:
      • The term TITER ( as it applies to the measurement of ANTIBODIES) is best defined as:
      • A smear that is prepared from equal parts of METHYLENE blue and whole BLOOD will be used for:
      • Which of the following STATISTICAL methods would be employed to determine how closely two different methods compare with each other:
      • What minimum level of specific resistance (megohms@25o C) is required for a Type I water system:
      • What is the purpose of using METHYL ALCOHOL in the GRAM STAIN procedure:
      • C-REACTIVE PROTEIN:
      • Which of the following IMMUNOGLOBULIN classes is chiefly responsible for the DEGRANULATION of MAST CELLS and BASOPHILS:
      • The IMMUNOGLOBULIN molecule is made up of both heavy and light chains - the light chains are comprised of the following pairs:
      • When evaluating the throughput of a particular method you should consider all of the following except:
      • The KLEIHAUER-BETKE test is used to:
      • Which of the following forms of HEMOGLOBIN cannot be detected by routine HEMOGLOBIN methods:
      • NEPHELOMETRY involves the measurement:
      • Which of the following is not a common support medium used in ELECTROPHORESIS techniques:
      • What percentage solution of SODIUM HYPOCHLORITE (bleach) is recommended as a routine LABORATORY DISINFECTANT:
      • Which of the following terms is used to express the average of a series of numbers or values:
      • Which of the following would not be considered a normal part of a routine ELECTROLYTE panel:
      • Which of the following microscopic techniques is capable of producing a 3-dimensional image :
      • Which of the following is a routine staining technique used in the CLINICAL LABORATORY:
      • What is the normal RATIO of ERYTHROID to MYELOID cells found in the normal BONE MARROW:
      • The gradual deterioRATIOn of an instrument's light source would most likely be reflected in the quality control results as:
      • Which of the following terms would be used to express the middle value in a series of results:
      • An OSMOMETER can use any of the following principles except:
      • How close the ASSAYED value of an ANALYTE is to its actual value is a reflection of:
      • The value that occurs most frequently in a set of results or values would be termed:
      • How many STANDARD DEVIATIONS from the mean would be accepted as being within control limits on a control chart utilizing the WESTGARD rules:
      • Classic automated BLOOD cell counters are based on:
      • Which of the following descriptions best describes the term absolute value as it would relate to DIFFERENTIAL counts.
      • This question refers to results of the classical complement fixation test; match the result on the left with the presence or absence of HEMOLYSIS on the right.
      • The presence of TURBIDITY in a patient's SERUM sample would be suggestive of:
      • CPT 4 CODES:
      • Which of the following is not directly responsible for setting and monitoring COMPETENCY requirements for LABORATORY personnel:
      • Which of the following is the main function of the ASCP Board of Registry:
      • The most common rapid slide test (MONOSPOTâ) for INFECTIOUS MONONUCLEOSIS employs:
      • A definitive DIAGNOSIS of MALARIA can be made by:
      • Which of the following is responsible for HUMORAL response:
      • An analytical method with a low detection limit would:
      • Analytical SENSITIVITY of a method generally refers to:
      • Which of the following would best be determined by running the same control specimen multiple times:
      • Which one of the following would not result in a rejection of an analytical run under the WESTGARD rules:
      • The term analytical SPECIFICITY refers to:
      • A patient with atypical (REACTIVE) LYMPHOCYTES in his PERIPHERAL BLOOD SMEAR should be tested for:
      • ELECTROPHORETIC sepaRATIOn fundamentally relies on:
      • Choose the correct result (TITER) given the following test results:
      • That portion of an ENZYME which is separated from its COFACTOR is called a(n):
      • BENCE-JONES PROTEINURIA is associated with all of the following conditions except:
      • Which of the following would most likely occur as the result of HEMODILUTION:
      • HEMATOCRIT is:
      • The RADIOACTIVE method used to measure red cell survival uses which of the following ISOTOPES:
      • What is the half-life of IGG:
      • Which of the following would not be considered a part of the BODY's CELLULAR IMMUNE system:
      • Which of the following is used as an indicator of inflammation:
      • Which of the following would be considered most significant as it relates to SEROLOGICAL testing:
      • SERUM PROTEINS can be separated by CELLULOSE ACETATE ELECTROPHORESIS into how many basic fractions:
      • CRYOGLOBULIN testing can be used to:
      • A decrease in which of the following in AIDS patients results in increased susceptibility to INFECTION:
      • Which one of the following terms does not describe a significant elevation of a single IMMUNOGLOBULIN class:
      • Which of the following is not a feature of systemic LUPUS ERYTHEMATOSUS (SLE):
      • What is the eight hour occupational EXPOSURE limit for a CHEMICAL called?
      • Which section of the MSDS would provide information on CHEMICAL HAZARDS that might affect your HEALTH:
      • What is the first thing you would do before you handle or open a CHEMICAL:
      • Which of the following ASSAYS is routinely used for confirmation of HIV INFECTIONS:
      • Match these AUTOIMMUNE DISEASES with their corresponding SEROLOGICAL markers:
      • Identify the reaction seen in IllustRATIOn:
      • Identify the reaction seen in IllustRATIOn
      • Identify the Eye piece and Binocular (observation tube):
      • Identify the CONDENSER and Objectives:
      • Identify the Revolving NOSEPIECE and Mechanical stage
      • Identify the Light intensity control and Stage controls
      • Identify the Coarse adjustment and Fine adjustment
      • Identify the BODY/or frame and Illuminator/DIAPHRAGM
      • Match the LABELS to their correct position as pertaining to light microscopy:
      • Match terms to IGG molecule illustRATIOn:
      • Match terms with fragments resulting from papain DIGESTION of an IGG molecule:
      • Match the LABELS to their correct position as pertaining to light microscopy:
      • Match the LABELS to their correct position as pertaining to light microscopy:

CLIA General Laboratory Competency Assessment Keywords

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